B.Pharm General Pharmacy MCQ Questions with Answers

General Pharmacy – BP102T Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) with Answers.

Unit – 1

Q1. Who is recognized as the “Father of Pharmacy Education in India”?
A. Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray
B. Prof. Mahadeva Lal Schroff
C. Col. R.N. Chopra
D. Dr. B.N. Ghosh
Correct Answer: (B) Prof. Mahadeva Lal Schroff

Q2. In which year was the first formal degree-level B.Pharm course initiated at Banaras Hindu
University (BHU)?
A. 1932
B. 1937
C. 1940
D. 1948
Correct Answer: (B) 1937

Q3. Bengal Chemical & Pharmaceutical Works (BCPW), the first Indian pharmaceutical company,
was established in 1901 by:
A. Prof. T.K. Gajjar
B. Col. R.N. Chopra
C. Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray
D. Prof. M.L. Schroff

Correct Answer: (C) Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray
Q4. Alembic Chemical Works was established in 1907 at Vadodara by which Indian pioneer?
A. Prof. T.K. Gajjar
B. Acharya P.C. Ray
C. Dr. B. Mukerji
D. Dr. Nitya Nand
Correct Answer: (A) Prof. T.K. Gajjar

Q5. The Drug Enquiry Committee was appointed in 1930 by the Government of India under the
chairmanship of:
A. Prof. M.L. Schroff
B. Col. R.N. Chopra
C. Dr. B.N. Ghosh
D. Acharya P.C. Ray
Correct Answer: (B) Col. R.N. Chopra

Q6. In which year was the landmark Pharmacy Act enacted to regulate the profession and practice
of pharmacy in India?
A. 1940
B. 1945
C. 1948
D. 1953
Correct Answer: (C) 1948

Q7. The Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was constituted in 1949 under which section of the
Pharmacy Act 1948?
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 12
D. Section 21
Correct Answer: (B) Section 3

Q8. Which Indian legislation granted process patents instead of product patents, enabling rapid
expansion of affordable generic drug production?
A. Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940
B. Pharmacy Act 1948
C. Indian Patent Act 1970
D. Dangerous Drugs Act 1930
Correct Answer: (C) Indian Patent Act 1970

Q9. Education Regulations (ER) governing the minimum standard of education for Diploma in
Pharmacy (D.Pharm) were first framed in:
A. 1949
B. 1953
C. 1960
D. 1972
Correct Answer: (B) 1953

Q10. In which year was the 6-year clinical Doctor of Pharmacy (Pharm.D) course officially
introduced in India?
A. 1996
B. 2002
C. 2008
D. 2014
Correct Answer: (C) 2008

Q11. The apex national regulatory authority responsible for drug approval, clinical trials, and setting
standards in India is:
A. IPC
B. CDSCO
C. AIOCD
D. APTI
Correct Answer: (B) CDSCO

Q12. The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) functions as an autonomous institution under
MoHFW located at:
A. New Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Mumbai
D. Ghaziabad
Correct Answer: (D) Ghaziabad

Q13. Which professional national organization is specifically dedicated to promoting the quality of
pharmacy education and teacher development?
A. IPA
B. APTI
C. AIOCD
D. IDMA
Correct Answer: (B) APTI

Q14. The official designated head of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is
the:
A. Director General of Health Services (DGHS)
B. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)
C. President of Pharmacy Council of India
D. Scientific Director of IPC
Correct Answer: (B) Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI)

Q15. In modern hospital pharmacy practice, the drug distribution method in which medications are
dispensed in individual packaged doses for each patient is:
A. Bulk Compound Stock System
B. Unit Dose Dispensing System
C. Open Ward Basket System
D. Direct Chemist Purchase System
Correct Answer: (B) Unit Dose Dispensing System

Q16. Which hospital committee is responsible for policy development regarding evaluation,
selection, and therapeutic use of drugs?
A. Institutional Ethics Committee (IEC)
B. Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC)
C. Infection Control Committee
D. Blood Transfusion Committee
Correct Answer: (B) Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee (PTC)

Q17. In clinical pharmacy practice, Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) detected in hospitals are
systematically reported to:
A. National Tuberculosis Elimination Program
B. Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI)
C. National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme
D. Pharmacy Council of India
Correct Answer: (B) Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI)

Q18. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring (TDM) is routinely performed for narrow therapeutic index drugs
such as:
A. Paracetamol
B. Digoxin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Cetirizine
Correct Answer: (B) Digoxin

Q19. In pharmaceutical industries, compiling and submitting regulatory dossiers (eCTD, ANDA,
NDA) for drug approval is handled by:
A. Quality Control (QC)
B. Regulatory Affairs (DRA)
C. Production & Manufacturing
D. Stores & Inventory
Correct Answer: (B) Regulatory Affairs (DRA)

Q20. Routine physicochemical testing of raw materials and finished pharmaceutical formulations
using HPLC and UV spectrophotometers is conducted by:
A. Quality Control (QC)
B. Packaging Department
C. Human Resource Department
D. Central Engineering Department
Correct Answer: (A) Quality Control (QC)

Unit – 2

Q1. In the imperial system of weights, one grain (gr) is approximately equivalent to how many
milligrams?
A. 28.35 mg
B. 64.8 mg (approx. 65 mg)
C. 100 mg
D. 453.6 mg
Correct Answer: (B) 64.8 mg (approx. 65 mg)

Q2. In domestic household measurements, one tablespoonful is standardly taken as equivalent to:
A. 5 mL
B. 10 mL
C. 15 mL
D. 30 mL
Correct Answer: (C) 15 mL

Q3. One avoirdupois ounce (oz) is equal to how many grams in the metric system?
A. 28.35 g
B. 31.10 g
C. 64.8 g
D. 453.6 g
Correct Answer: (A) 28.35 g

Q4. Expressed in scientific notation, one nanogram (1 ng) is equivalent to:
A. 1 × 10-3 g
B. 1 × 10-6 g
C. 1 × 10-9 g
D. 1 × 10-12 g
Correct Answer: (C) 1 × 10-9 g

Q5. To prevent ten-fold dosing errors in prescription writing, which rule must always be strictly
observed?
A. Always use trailing zeros after a whole number (e.g., 5.0 mg)
B. Always use a leading zero before a decimal point (e.g., 0.5 mg) and never use a trailing zero
C. Omit the decimal point completely and write fractions
D. Write units in Roman numerals only
Correct Answer: (B) Always use a leading zero before a decimal point (e.g., 0.5 mg) and never use a
trailing zero

Q6. In household equivalents, one dessertspoonful represents an approximate volume of:
A. 5 mL
B. 10 mL
C. 15 mL
D. 20 mL
Correct Answer: (B) 10 mL

Q7. In pharmaceutical liquid measurements, approximately how many milliliters are contained in
one minim?
A. 0.06 mL
B. 0.5 mL
C. 1.0 mL
D. 3.55 mL
Correct Answer: (A) 0.06 mL

Q8. Percent Weight-in-Volume (% w/v) is mathematically defined as the:
A. Grams of solute in 1000 mL of finished solution
B. Grams of solute in 100 mL of finished liquid solution
C. Milliliters of solute in 100 g of solution
D. Grams of solute dissolved in 100 g of solvent
Correct Answer: (B) Grams of solute in 100 mL of finished liquid solution

Q9. The official concentration of Normal Saline solution that is isotonic with human blood plasma
is:
A. 0.09% w/v NaCl
B. 0.9% w/v NaCl
C. 5.0% w/v NaCl
D. 9.0% w/v NaCl
Correct Answer: (B) 0.9% w/v NaCl

Q10. A 0.02% w/v solution of Benzalkonium Chloride expressed as a ratio strength is:
A. 1 : 500 w/v
B. 1 : 2000 w/v
C. 1 : 5000 w/v
D. 1 : 10,000 w/v
Correct Answer: (C) 1 : 5000 w/v

Q11. What is the percentage strength equivalent to a 1 : 400 w/v solution?
A. 0.025% w/v
B. 0.25% w/v
C. 2.5% w/v
D. 4.0% w/v
Correct Answer: (B) 0.25% w/v

Q12. Concentration expressed as Percent Weight-in-Weight (% w/w) is most commonly used for
which dosage forms?
A. True oral solutions and syrups
B. Semisolids such as ointments, pastes, and creams
C. Intravenous infusions
D. Pressurized metered-dose inhalers
Correct Answer: (B) Semisolids such as ointments, pastes, and creams

Q13. Which method of calculation is utilized to determine the average resulting strength when
mixing known quantities of preparations of known different strengths?
A. Alligation Medial
B. Alligation Alternate
C. Geometric Dilution
D. Clark’s Rule
Correct Answer: (A) Alligation Medial

Q14. The calculation method used to find the relative proportions of two or more components of
different concentrations needed to prepare a target intermediate strength is:
A. Alligation Medial
B. Alligation Alternate
C. Sprowls Method
D. White-Vincent Method
Correct Answer: (B) Alligation Alternate

Q15. In an Alligation Alternate grid, the number of parts of the higher concentration component (H)
required for a target concentration (T) and lower concentration (L) equals:
A. H − T
B. T − L
C. H − L
D. (H + L) / 2
Correct Answer: (B) T − L

Q16. In what proportion must 95% v/v alcohol and 45% v/v alcohol be mixed to prepare a 70% v/v
alcohol solution?
A. 25 parts of 95% and 25 parts of 45% (Ratio 1 : 1)
B. 30 parts of 95% and 20 parts of 45%
C. 15 parts of 95% and 35 parts of 45%
D. 40 parts of 95% and 10 parts of 45%
Correct Answer: (A) 25 parts of 95% and 25 parts of 45% (Ratio 1 : 1)

Q17. Under the British proof system, 100° Proof spirit is defined as containing what percentage
volume-in-volume of ethyl alcohol?
A. 50.0% v/v
B. 57.1% v/v
C. 70.0% v/v
D. 95.0% v/v
Correct Answer: (B) 57.1% v/v

Q18. What multiplication factor is standardly applied to convert percentage volume-in-volume of
alcohol into British proof degrees?
A. 1.250
B. 1.751
C. 2.000
D. 0.571
Correct Answer: (B) 1.751

Q19. An alcohol solution containing more than 57.1% v/v ethanol has a proof strength exceeding
100° Proof and is designated as:
A. Under Proof (UP)
B. Over Proof (OP)
C. Iso-Proof
D. Absolute Proof
Correct Answer: (B) Over Proof (OP)

Q20. What is the proof strength and classification of a 90% v/v ethyl alcohol solution?
A. 157.59° Proof (57.59° OP)
B. 120.00° Proof (20.00° OP)
C. 90.00° Proof (10.00° UP)
D. 70.04° Proof (29.96° UP)
Correct Answer: (A) 157.59° Proof (57.59° OP)

Unit – 3

Q1. Pharmaceutical powders are defined as solid dosage forms consisting of finely divided, dry
medicaments intended for:
A. Intravenous administration only
B. Internal or external use
C. Ophthalmic irrigation exclusively
D. Subcutaneous implantation only
Correct Answer: (B) Internal or external use

Q2. Which external bulk powder formulation is specifically designed to be blown into body
cavities such as the nose, throat, or ear?
A. Dentifrices
B. Snuffs
C. Insufflations
D. Dusting powders
Correct Answer: (C) Insufflations

Q3. Dentifrices are external bulk powders formulated primarily for cleaning teeth and standardly
contain:
A. Abrasives, detergents/soaps, and flavoring agents
B. Systemic narcotic analgesics and binders
C. Enteric polymers and heavy lubricants
D. Gelatin and plasticizers
Correct Answer: (A) Abrasives, detergents/soaps, and flavoring agents

Q4. Which of the following is a classic example of a divided powder formulation wrapped
individually as single doses?
A. Compound Magnesium Trisilicate Powder
B. Seidlitz Powder
C. Zinc Starch Dusting Powder
D. Tooth Powder
Correct Answer: (B) Seidlitz Powder

Q5. Why do pharmaceutical powders exhibit a faster rate of dissolution and quicker onset of
therapeutic action compared to compressed tablets?
A. Due to higher compression force applied during milling
B. Due to large specific surface area of finely divided particles
C. Because powders completely bypass hepatic metabolism
D. Because powders contain enteric polymer coatings
Correct Answer: (B) Due to large specific surface area of finely divided particles

Q6. Topical dusting powders are formulated to be non-irritant and free-flowing, and are standardly
passed through which sieve number?
A. Sieve No. 10
B. Sieve No. 22
C. Sieve No. 44
D. Sieve No. 80
Correct Answer: (D) Sieve No. 80

Q7. Surgical dusting powders intended for application onto open wounds or burns must be sterile;
which dry heat conditions are validated for heat-stable powders?
A. 100°C for 30 minutes
B. 121°C for 15 minutes
C. 160°C for 2 hours
D. 250°C for 5 minutes
Correct Answer: (C) 160°C for 2 hours

Q8. Which active inorganic excipient is standardly incorporated into medical dusting powders to
provide astringent and mild antiseptic action?
A. Zinc Oxide
B. Sodium Chloride
C. Calcium Carbonate
D. Magnesium Stearate
Correct Answer: (A) Zinc Oxide

Q9. In effervescent powder formulations, effervescence is produced upon contact with water due
to the chemical liberation of:
A. Oxygen (O2) gas
B. Hydrogen (H2) gas
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2) gas
D. Nitrogen (N2) gas
Correct Answer: (C) Carbon dioxide (CO2) gas

Q10. What is the standard stoichiometric ratio by weight of Citric Acid Monohydrate : Tartaric
Acid : Sodium Bicarbonate in effervescent powders?
A. 1 : 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2 : 3.4
C. 2 : 1 : 4.5
D. 1 : 3 : 2.5
Correct Answer: (B) 1 : 2 : 3.4

Q11. Hydrated crystalline substances that spontaneously lose water of crystallization when
exposed to dry air are termed:
A. Hygroscopic powders
B. Deliquescent powders
C. Efflorescent powders
D. Eutectic powders
Correct Answer: (C) Efflorescent powders

Q12. Which of the following chemical compounds is a classic example of an efflorescent powder?
A. Sodium Carbonate Decahydrate
B. Calcium Chloride
C. Potassium Citrate
D. Ammonium Chloride
Correct Answer: (A) Sodium Carbonate Decahydrate

Q13. Solid powders that absorb atmospheric moisture to such an extent that they dissolve in the
absorbed water and form a liquid solution are:
A. Efflorescent powders
B. Deliquescent powders
C. Granular powders
D. Eutectic powders
Correct Answer: (B) Deliquescent powders

Q14. Which of the following substances exhibits deliquescent properties upon exposure to
atmospheric humidity?
A. Calcium Chloride
B. Microcrystalline Cellulose
C. Talc
D. Starch
Correct Answer: (A) Calcium Chloride

Q15. The phenomenon where two or more solid substances liquefy upon mutual contact due to a
depression of their melting points below room temperature is called:
A. Efflorescence
B. Eutectic mixture formation
C. Deliquescence
D. Polymorphism
Correct Answer: (B) Eutectic mixture formation

Q16. Which pair of solid compounds forms a eutectic liquid mass when triturated together at
room temperature?
A. Lactose and Starch
B. Menthol and Camphor
C. Sodium Bicarbonate and Sucrose
D. Talc and Zinc Oxide
Correct Answer: (B) Menthol and Camphor

Q17. What compounding technique is utilized during dispensing to prevent liquefaction of eutectic components?
A. Mixing each component separately with an inert absorbent like Light Magnesium Oxide before gentle
blending
B. Heating the powder mixture to 100°C
C. Dissolving all components in 95% alcohol and evaporating to dryness
D. Compressing the powder blend under maximum hydraulic pressure
Correct Answer: (A) Mixing each component separately with an inert absorbent like Light Magnesium Oxide before gentle blending

Q18. The comminution method termed “Pulverization by Intervention” is specifically employed for
hard or gummy substances (e.g., Camphor) by using:
A. An insoluble viscous oil like liquid paraffin
B. A volatile solvent like alcohol or ether that evaporates post-grinding
C. High-pressure steam under vacuum
D. Continuous high-speed mechanical dry sieving
Correct Answer: (B) A volatile solvent like alcohol or ether that evaporates post-grinding

Q19. Grinding an insoluble powder with a small amount of a viscous liquid (such as Mineral Oil or Glycerin) to form a smooth paste is known as:
A. Trituration
B. Levigation
C. Spatulation
D. Tumbling
Correct Answer: (B) Levigation

Q20. The blending method that involves mixing small quantities of non-potent powders on an ointment tile using a flexible blade is:
A. Spatulation
B. Tumbling
C. Sifting
D. Geometric dilution
Correct Answer: (A) Spatulation

Unit – 4

Q1. A pharmaceutical liquid dosage form consisting of a single, completely homogeneous phase
where solute molecules are dissolved in a solvent is termed:
A. Biphasic liquid system
B. Monophasic liquid system
C. Coarse suspension system
D. Heterogeneous emulsion
Correct Answer: (B) Monophasic liquid system

Q2. Aromatic waters are officially defined as clear, saturated aqueous solutions of:
A. Heavy mineral oils in water
B. Volatile oils or other aromatic/volatile substances
C. Concentrated sucrose in purified water
D. Hydroalcoholic solutions containing high glycerol
Correct Answer: (B) Volatile oils or other aromatic/volatile substances

Q3. Which official high-purity method is employed for the preparation of Rose Water IP and Orange
Flower Water IP?
A. Steam Distillation Method
B. Dry Trituration Method
C. Hot Fusion Method
D. Direct Percolation with Oil
Correct Answer: (A) Steam Distillation Method

Q4. In the Alternate Solution Method of preparing aromatic waters, what is the functional role of
adding an inert powder like Talc or Kieselguhr?
A. To act as a chemical preservative
B. To increase contact surface area of volatile oil and assist in clarifying filtration
C. To impart an intense sweet taste to the vehicle
D. To lower the freezing point below zero
Correct Answer: (B) To increase contact surface area of volatile oil and assist in clarifying filtration

Q5. Chloroform Water IP serves a vital dual function in traditional pharmaceutical compounding as a:
A. Suspending agent and coloring dye
B. Carminative vehicle and antimicrobial preservative
C. Plasticizer and wetting surfactant
D. Emulsifying agent and lubricant
Correct Answer: (B) Carminative vehicle and antimicrobial preservative

Q6. According to the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP), what is the official concentration of Sucrose in
Simple Syrup IP?
A. 50.0% w/v
B. 66.7% w/w
C. 85.0% w/v
D. 64.74% w/v
Correct Answer: (B) 66.7% w/w

Q7. As specified by the United States Pharmacopeia (USP), Simple Syrup USP contains what
concentration of Sucrose in purified water?
A. 66.7% w/w
B. 85.0% w/v (or 64.74% w/w)
C. 75.0% w/w
D. 90.0% w/v
Correct Answer: (B) 85.0% w/v (or 64.74% w/w)

Q8. Why does Simple Syrup IP (66.7% w/w sucrose) exhibit a self-preserving property without requiring added chemical preservatives?
A. High sucrose concentration exerts high osmotic pressure and lowers water activity, causing microbial plasmolysis
B. Sucrose acts as a direct chemical biocide that destroys bacterial cell walls
C. Simple Syrup has an extremely acidic pH below 2.0
D. Simple Syrup undergoes mandatory gamma irradiation
Correct Answer: (A) High sucrose concentration exerts high osmotic pressure and lowers water activity,
causing microbial plasmolysis

Q9. The hydrolytic breakdown of sucrose into invert sugar (dextrose/glucose and levulose/fructose)
upon heating or acid exposure is known as:
A. Saponification
B. Inversion
C. Polymerization
D. Esterification
Correct Answer: (B) Inversion

Q10. In the preparation of syrups, which method is specifically utilized by slowly passing purified
water or a medicated solution through a bed of crystalline sucrose?
A. Hot Process
B. Maceration Method
C. Percolation Method
D. Trituration Method
Correct Answer: (C) Percolation Method

Q11. Pharmaceutical Elixirs are clear, pleasantly flavored, sweetened oral liquid preparations
classified as:
A. Pure aqueous solutions
B. Hydroalcoholic solutions
C. Pure oily dispersions
D. Heterogeneous suspensions
Correct Answer: (B) Hydroalcoholic solutions

Q12. What is the typical alcohol (ethanol) content range present in pharmaceutical elixirs?
A. 0.1% to 1.0% v/v
B. 4% to 40% v/v
C. 50% to 70% v/v
D. 80% to 95% v/v
Correct Answer: (B) 4% to 40% v/v

Q13. In the pharmaceutical compounding of elixirs, which mixing rule must always be strictly
observed to prevent the precipitation of alcohol-soluble ingredients?
A. Add the alcoholic solution to the aqueous solution rapidly
B. Add the aqueous solution to the alcoholic solution with constant stirring
C. Heat both solutions to boiling before combining
D. Add dry sucrose powder directly into pure alcohol
Correct Answer: (B) Add the aqueous solution to the alcoholic solution with constant stirring

Q14. Linctuses are viscous oral liquid formulations containing high proportions of syrup and glycerol
primarily formulated to provide:
A. Systemic laxative and purgative actions
B. Demulcent action coating the throat mucosa to relieve cough
C. Antacid neutralization in the stomach
D. Rapid diuretic action
Correct Answer: (B) Demulcent action coating the throat mucosa to relieve cough

Q15. How should a patient be instructed to take a linctus (e.g., Codeine Linctus IP) to obtain
maximum therapeutic effectiveness?
A. Dilute with a large glass of boiling water and drink quickly
B. Sip slowly in small doses without adding water
C. Administer strictly after mixing with milk
D. Inhale as a pressurized aerosol
Correct Answer: (B) Sip slowly in small doses without adding water

Q16. What is the fundamental difference in the method of topical application between Liniments and
Lotions?
A. Liniments are applied with friction (rubbing), whereas lotions are applied without friction (dabbed on skin)
B. Liniments are dabbed with cotton, while lotions are vigorously massaged
C. Both liniments and lotions must be rubbed vigorously into broken skin
D. Liniments are swallowed, while lotions are applied externally
Correct Answer: (A) Liniments are applied with friction (rubbing), whereas lotions are applied without
friction (dabbed on skin)

Q17. Which crucial clinical warning must always be stated on the label of a liniment formulation (e.g.,
Turpentine Liniment IP)?
A. “For Ophthalmic Instillation Only”
B. “Never apply to broken skin or open wounds”
C. “Take two teaspoonfuls before meals”
D. “Store at freezing temperatures”
Correct Answer: (B) “Never apply to broken skin or open wounds”

Q18. What vehicle bases are standardly employed for formulating liniments to provide counter-irritant
and rubefacient effects?
A. Purified water exclusively
B. Alcohol, fixed oils (e.g., arachis/sesame oil), or soap solutions
C. Concentrated sucrose syrup
D. Liquid polyethylene glycol 4000
Correct Answer: (B) Alcohol, fixed oils (e.g., arachis/sesame oil), or soap solutions

Q19. In throat paints (such as Mandl’s Paint), why is Glycerin universally preferred as the vehicle
base?
A. It rapidly evaporates, leaving a dry powder residue
B. Its high viscosity enables the medicament to adhere to mucous membranes for prolonged contact time
C. It prevents the dissolution of potassium iodide
D. It produces effervescence when contacting saliva
Correct Answer: (B) Its high viscosity enables the medicament to adhere to mucous membranes for
prolonged contact time

Q20. Mandl’s Paint (Compound Iodine Paint IP) is an official topical formulation used to treat tonsillitis
and pharyngitis containing:
A. Phenol, Camphor, and Sesame oil
B. Iodine, Potassium Iodide, Alcohol, Peppermint Oil, and Glycerin
C. Zinc Oxide, Calamine, and Water
D. Benzyl Benzoate and Triethanolamine stearate
Correct Answer: (B) Iodine, Potassium Iodide, Alcohol, Peppermint Oil, and Glycerin

Unit – 5

Q1. Semisolid dosage forms applied to the skin exhibit plastic or pseudoplastic flow, which is characterized by possessing a:
A. Zero viscosity under all conditions
B. Specific yield value that prevents running off the skin at rest but allows spreading under shear stress
C. Dilatant behavior where viscosity increases sharply upon rubbing
D. Pure Newtonian flow identical to water
Correct Answer: (B) Specific yield value that prevents running off the skin at rest but allows spreading
under shear stress

Q2. According to standard pharmaceutical definitions, Ointments are semisolid preparations generally
containing:
A. More than 80% water and less than 10% fats
B. Less than 20% water/volatiles and more than 50% hydrocarbons, waxes, or polyols
C. Equal volumes of alcohol and water
D. Exactly 70% gaseous propellants
Correct Answer: (B) Less than 20% water/volatiles and more than 50% hydrocarbons, waxes, or polyols

Q3. Creams are viscous semisolid emulsion dosage forms that typically contain:
A. More than 20% water and volatile components and usually less than 50% hydrocarbons or polyols
B. 0% water and 100% solid wax
C. 90% dry insoluble powders
D. Anhydrous vegetable oils exclusively
Correct Answer: (A) More than 20% water and volatile components and usually less than 50% hydrocarbons
or polyols

Q4. Pharmaceutical Pastes are distinguished from standard ointments by containing what proportion
of finely divided insoluble solids?
A. Less than 1% w/w
B. 5% to 10% w/w
C. 20% to 50% w/w
D. More than 85% w/w
Correct Answer: (C) 20% to 50% w/w

Q5. Pharmaceutical Gels (Jellies) are transparent or translucent semisolids structurally consisting of:
A. Heavy mineral oils solidified by chilling
B. A three-dimensional polymeric network that immobilizes a liquid medium
C. Molten hard paraffin blended with beeswax
D. Coarse emulsions with high globule size
Correct Answer: (B) A three-dimensional polymeric network that immobilizes a liquid medium

Q6. Why are oleaginous/hydrocarbon ointment bases particularly preferred for treating dry, chronic,
thickened skin lesions (e.g., chronic eczema, psoriasis)?
A. They cause rapid dehydration of the stratum corneum
B. They form an occlusive barrier that inhibits transepidermal water loss (TEWL) and rehydrates the skin
C. They wash off easily with cold water within seconds
D. They contain volatile astringent agents
Correct Answer: (B) They form an occlusive barrier that inhibits transepidermal water loss (TEWL) and
rehydrates the skin

Q7. For moist, weeping, or oozing skin lesions, which type of semisolid preparation is therapeutically
most suitable?
A. Highly occlusive hydrocarbon ointment
B. Water-removable (Oil-in-Water) cream that absorbs exudate and permits evaporation
C. Anhydrous greasy wool fat
D. Mineral oil liniment
Correct Answer: (B) Water-removable (Oil-in-Water) cream that absorbs exudate and permits evaporation

Q8. Which major pharmacokinetic advantage is achieved by administering active drugs topically in
semisolid dosage forms compared to oral delivery?
A. Complete elimination of all metabolic pathways in the body
B. Bypassing gastrointestinal degradation and hepatic first-pass metabolism
C. Immediate 100% systemic bio-distribution in seconds
D. Permanent irreversible drug binding to albumin
Correct Answer: (B) Bypassing gastrointestinal degradation and hepatic first-pass metabolism

Q9. What is a primary aesthetic and practical disadvantage associated with hydrocarbon-based
ointments?
A. Inability to adhere to dry skin
B. Greasy texture, potential to stain clothing, and poor water-washability
C. Immediate evaporation within minutes of application
D. High susceptibility to microbial fermentation without water
Correct Answer: (B) Greasy texture, potential to stain clothing, and poor water-washability

Q10. Ophthalmic ointments (e.g., Atropine Sulphate eye ointment) must strictly comply with which
mandatory pharmacopoeial requirement?
A. Must contain at least 40% ethanol
B. Must be sterile, non-irritating, and free from foreign particulate matter
C. Must have a dark opaque color
D. Must be formulated as stiff pastes with 50% solids
Correct Answer: (B) Must be sterile, non-irritating, and free from foreign particulate matter

Q11. Which of the following is classified as an Oleaginous / Hydrocarbon ointment base?
A. White Soft Paraffin (White Petroleum Jelly)
B. Macrogol Ointment BP
C. Hydrophilic Ointment USP
D. Glycerinated Gelatin
Correct Answer: (A) White Soft Paraffin (White Petroleum Jelly)

Q12. In ointment compounding by the trituration method, what is the functional role of Liquid Paraffin
(Mineral Oil)?
A. Enteric polymer former
B. Levigating agent to wet and reduce the particle size of insoluble solid powders
C. Preservative against fungi
D. Buffering agent to maintain pH 7.4
Correct Answer: (B) Levigating agent to wet and reduce the particle size of insoluble solid powders

Q13. Type I Absorption Bases (Anhydrous Absorption Bases), such as Wool Fat (Anhydrous Lanolin),
possess the unique property of:
A. Dissolving completely in cold water
B. Absorbing significant amounts of water to form Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsions
C. Forming clear transparent hydrogels upon heating
D. Being completely water-washable without soap
Correct Answer: (B) Absorbing significant amounts of water to form Water-in-Oil (W/O) emulsions

Q14. Hydrous Wool Fat (Lanolin), a Type II hydrous absorption base, officially contains approximately
what percentage of water incorporated?
A. 5% w/w
B. 10% w/w
C. 30% w/w
D. 70% w/w
Correct Answer: (C) 30% w/w

Q15. Emulsifying Ointment BP is categorized under which class of ointment bases?
A. Oleaginous / Hydrocarbon bases
B. Water-Removable / Emulsifying bases
C. Anhydrous Absorption bases
D. Gaseous bases
Correct Answer: (B) Water-Removable / Emulsifying bases

Q16. Water-Soluble (Greaseless) ointment bases are formulated exclusively from which class of
chemical polymers?
A. Long-chain liquid silicones
B. Polyethylene Glycols (PEGs / Macrogols)
C. Purified beeswax
D. Saturated triglycerides
Correct Answer: (B) Polyethylene Glycols (PEGs / Macrogols)

Q17. Macrogol Ointment BP is standardly prepared by blending which two Polyethylene Glycols of
differing physical states?
A. Liquid PEG 400 and solid PEG 4000
B. PEG 200 and white soft paraffin
C. Solid PEG 6000 and hard paraffin
D. Liquid PEG 400 and liquid paraffin
Correct Answer: (A) Liquid PEG 400 and solid PEG 4000

Q18. For formulating moisture-sensitive or water-labile antibiotics (such as Tetracycline or Penicillin),
which ointment base is selected?
A. Water-removable O/W emulsion base
B. Hydrous lanolin base containing 30% water
C. Anhydrous Oleaginous / Hydrocarbon base
D. Aqueous Carbomer hydrogel
Correct Answer: (C) Anhydrous Oleaginous / Hydrocarbon base

Q19. Humectants (such as Glycerin, Propylene Glycol, or Sorbitol) are incorporated into semisolid
creams primarily to:
A. Accelerate water evaporation to form a hard crust
B. Retain moisture, prevent the formulation from drying out, and retard crust formation during storage
C. Produce effervescence upon contact with sweat
D. Impart an intense fragrance
Correct Answer: (B) Retain moisture, prevent the formulation from drying out, and retard crust formation
during storage

Q20. Which of the following excipients is an oil-soluble antioxidant added to fatty ointment bases to
inhibit oxidative rancidity?
A. Butylated Hydroxytoluene (BHT)
B. Methylparaben
C. Sodium Metabisulfite
D. Ascorbic acid
Correct Answer: (A) Butylated Hydroxytoluene (BHT)