PART – 3 Introduction to Microbiology and Common Microorganisms
Q1. Name the organ in which the malarial parasite could reside and stay dormant for up to one year during the transmission of the disease in humans
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Intestines
D. Gall’s bladder
Correct Answer: (B) Liver
Q2. Parasite that is also a vector host is
A. Ascaris
B. Bug
C. Fasciola
D. House fly
Correct Answer: (B) Bug
Q3. Leprosy is also called
A. Hartmann’s disease
B. Hansen’s disease
C. Humprey’s disease
D. Harry’s disease
Correct Answer: (B) Hansen’s disease
Q4. Which of the following diseases is caused by a nematode
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Filariasis
C. Leprosy
D. Amoebiasis
Correct Answer: (B) Filariasis
Q5. As long as a person has no symptoms of an STIs they
A. Cannot pass on an STI
B. Don’t have an STI
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Both a and b
Q6. Which of the following is responsible for the spread of dengue
A. Anopheles mosquito
B. Culex mosquito
C. Aedes mosquito
D. Housefly
Correct Answer: (C) Aedes mosquito
Q7. Most effective antibiotics for the treatment of amoebiasis
A. Erythromycin
B. Terramycin
C. Fumagillin
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q8. Leprosy is caused by which microorganism
A. Clostridium perfringes
B. Mycobacteriym leprae
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Mycobacteriym leprae
Q9. Malarial parasite is best obtained from a patient
A. An hour after rise of temperature
B. While temperature is rising sharply
C. After 24 hours when temperature is normal
D. After temperature becomes normal
Correct Answer: (B) While temperature is rising sharply
Q10. Which is a typical features associated with skin patches caused due to leprosy
A. Loss of sensations over the affected skin
B. Skin over the affected areas appears very dark
C. Extreme pain over the affected skin
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Loss of sensations over the affected skin
Q11. The rash seen in typhoid patients is referred to as
A. Tomato spots
B. Dew drops spots
C. Flame spots
D. Rose spots
Correct Answer: (D) Rose spots
Q12. SAFE strategy in trachoma excludes
A. Screening
B. Antibiotics
C. Environmental cleanliness
D. Facial cleanliness
Correct Answer: (A) Screening
Q13. Tick the amebicide drug for the treatment of an asymptomatic intestinal form of amebiasis
A. Chloroquine
B. Diloxanide
C. Emetine
D. Doxycycline
Correct Answer: (B) Diloxanide
Q14. Typhoid fever is caused by
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Salmonella paratyphi
C. E-coli
D. Shigella
Correct Answer: (A) Salmonella typhi
Q15. The most common complication of diarrhea is _____
A. Intestinal perforation
B. Dehydration
C. Septicemia
D. Seizure
Correct Answer: (B) Dehydration
Q16. One symptom of genital herpes is
A. Tingling and burning in the genital area
B. Painful blisters in the genital area
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Both a and b
Q17. Gonorrhea is treated with antibiotics. What problem has occurred recently in treatment?
A. Antibiotics have been in short supply
B. The bacteria that cause gonorrhea have become resistant to certain antibiotics
C. People have developed an allergic reaction to certain antibiotics
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q18. Which of the following human disease is transmitted from the vector Anopheles mosquito
A. Dengue
B. Malaria
C. Filaria
D. Encephalitis
Correct Answer: (B) Malaria
Q19. An antibiotic effective against M leprae is
A. Clarithromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin G
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Clarithromycin
Q20. Food borne illness otherwise known as food poisoning
A. Is caused by eating contaminated food or drinks
B. Has many causes
C. Can cause nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
D. All of the above are true
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above are true
Q21. Which is the infective form of the malaria parasite
A. Oocyst
B. Sporozoite
C. Bradyzoite
D. Tachyzoite
Correct Answer: (B) Sporozoite
Q22. What foods should I eat if I have food poisoning symptoms
A. Spicy foods
B. Milk and dairy products
C. Crackers and toast
D. Fried foods
Correct Answer: (C) Crackers and toast
Q23. The drug of choice for kalaazar is
A. Pentamidine
B. Amphotericin B
C. Sodium stibogluconate
D. Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: (C) Sodium stibogluconate
Q24. Severe form of dengue fever by infection with more than one dengue virus
A. Classical dengue fever
B. Dengue hemorrhagic fever
C. Dengue shock syndrome
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Dengue hemorrhagic fever
Q25. Amoebiasis is caused by
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Entamoeba histolytica
Q26. Most common viral arthropod borne disease is
A. Filariasis
B. Malaria
C. Dengue fever
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Dengue fever
Q27. Which is most effective amoebicide
A. Streptomycin
B. Ampicillin
C. Metronidazole
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Metronidazole
Q28. Amoebiasis is a disease of
A. Respiratory system
B. Intestinal system
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Urinogenital tract
Correct Answer: (C) Gastrointestinal tract
Q29. Mass treatment of trachoma is recommended if prevalence is more than
A. More than 10 %
B. 5%-7%
C. 2%-3%
D. Less than 1%
Correct Answer: (A) More than 10 %
Q30. Which of the following is used as diagnostic criteria of trachoma
A. Vascular pannus
B. Follicles on upper tarsal conjunctiva
C. Conjunctival scarring
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q31. What is the reservoir of trachoma
A. Active case
B. Chronic case
C. Soil
D. Both a and b
Correct Answer: (D) Both a and b
Q32. Which of the following is a correct matching pair of disease and pathogen
A. Filariasis – Wuchereria
B. Kala-azar – Glossina
C. Sleeping sickness – Leishmania
D. Malaria – Anopheles
Correct Answer: (A) Filariasis – Wuchereria
Q33. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. amoebiasis
A. Causes dysentery
B. Parasite of the small intestine
C. Houseflies are mechanical carriers
D. Symptoms include constipation, abdominal pain and cramp
Correct Answer: (B) Parasite of the small intestine
Q34. Tick the drug of choice for the treatment of extraluminal amoebiasis
A. Iodoquinol
B. Metronidazole
C. Diloxanide
D. Tetracycline
Correct Answer: (B) Metronidazole
Q35. The most common of the human infecting malarial parasite is
A. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
Correct Answer: (B) Plasmodium vivax
Q36. Diagnosis of chikungunya is made based on
A. Blood tests
B. Urine tests
C. ECG
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Blood tests
Q37. To prevent fluid overload, what type of diuretic should be given to the patient
A. Loop diuretic
B. Potassium sparing diuretic
C. Osmotic diuretic
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Loop diuretic
Q38. Plague is caused by
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Salmonella typhimuium
D. Trichinella spiralis
Correct Answer: (B) Yersinia pestis
Q39. The following are some symptoms, find the disease associated with it. Sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache, loss of appetite
A. Pneumonia
B. Malaria
C. Typhoid
D. Filariasis
Correct Answer: (C) Typhoid
Q40. Dengue fever incubation period ranges from
A. 1-12 days
B. 3-14 days
C. 14-28 days
D. 28-32 days
Correct Answer: (B) 3-14 days
Q41. Ascaris lumbricoides, commonly is known as
A. Filarial worm
B. Hookworm
C. Roundworm
D. Pinworm
Correct Answer: (C) Roundworm
Q42. Who is the primary host of malarial parasite
A. Man
B. Rat
C. Anopheles
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Man
Q43. Which of the following is not a vector-borne disease
A. Yellow fever
B. Dengue fever
C. Viral fever
D. Malaria
Correct Answer: (C) Viral fever
Q44. Which of the following antibiotics is mostly used for the treatment of trachoma
A. Penicillin
B. Doxycycline
C. Tetracycline
D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: (D) Azithromycin
Q45. Onset of typhoid fever is usually gradual, with fever and which of the following additional symptoms occurring most often
A. Arthralgia
B. Balancing lesions
C. Diarrhea
D. Delirium
Correct Answer: (A) Arthralgia
Q46. Classical dengue fever is also called as
A. Black fever
B. Break bone fever
C. Saddle back fever
D. Both b and c
Correct Answer: (D) Both b and c
Q47. Which of the following are important for dengue prevention
A. Using mosquito repellents
B. Going outside in the evening
C. Keeping the doors and windows open
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Using mosquito repellents
Q48. Filarial larva can be collected from man’s
A. Peripheral blood at midnight
B. Smears of spleen
C. Smears of intestinal contents
D. Biopsy of liver
Correct Answer: (A) Peripheral blood at midnight
Q49. Which of the following are the diagnostics methods for dengue
A. RT-PCR
B. Nucleic acid amplification tests
C. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assays
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (A) RT-PCR
Q50. How is dengue fever transmitted
A. Bite of an infected mosquito
B. Bite of an infected male aedes mosquito
C. Bite of an infected female anopheles mosquito
D. Bite of an infected female aedes mosquito
Correct Answer: (D) Bite of an infected female aedes mosquito
Q51. The following are signs and symptoms manifested by a patient in the febrile phase of dengue fever, except
A. High fever
B. Rash
C. Petechiae
D. Severe GI bleeding
Correct Answer: (D) Severe GI bleeding
Q52. In tissues, amoebiasis is treated with
A. Tinidazole
B. Nitazoxanide
C. Metronidazole
D. Any of these
Correct Answer: (D) Any of these
Q53. Typhoid is also known as
A. Pneumatic fever
B. Hepatic fever
C. Vesical fever
D. Enteric fever
Correct Answer: (D) Enteric fever
Q54. Prophylaxis of amoebiasis
A. Proper disposal of sewage
B. Washing hands before taking meals and after toilet
C. Purification of drinking water
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q55. Amoebiasis is transmitted by
A. Direct contact with dirty hands
B. Sexual contact
C. Faecal contamination of drinking water and food
D. All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Q56. Amoebiasis causes
A. Headache and cold
B. Dysentery
C. Fever
D. Severe cold
Correct Answer: (B) Dysentery
Q57. Warning signs of dengue haemorrhagic fever
A. Vomiting blood
B. Difficult breathing
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q58. The Filarial larva can be collected from the sample of
A. Biopsy of liver
B. Smears of intestinal contents
C. Smears of spleen
D. Peripheral blood at midnight
Correct Answer: (B) Smears of intestinal contents
Q59. Amoebiasis is transmitted by
A. Direct contact with dirty hands
B. Sexual contact
C. Faecal contamination of drinking water and food
D. All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Q60. How long do most cases of food poisoning typically last
A. 1 hour
B. 6-72 hours
C. 8-10 days
D. 4 weeks or more
Correct Answer: (B) 6-72 hours
Q61. Trachoma is a disease of the
A. Liver
B. Eyes
C. Lungs
D. Kidneys
Correct Answer: (B) Eyes
Q62. What are the modes of transmission of trachoma
A. Eye seeking flies
B. Veneral transmission
C. Direct contact with ocular discharge
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q63. Presence of ingested RBCs is a characteristic feature of
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Lodamoeba butcheli
Correct Answer: (A) Entamoeba histolytica
Q64. In development countries, salmonella typhi is most likely transmitted via which of the following pathways
A. Food
B. Sexual contact
C. Solid clothing
D. Water
Correct Answer: (A) Food
Q65. Filariasis in India is transmitted by
A. Musca domestica
B. Anopheles culicifacies
C. Culex fatigens
D. Aedes aegypti
Correct Answer: (C) Culex fatigens
Q66. Chikungunya vaccine is administered every
A. Three years
B. Five years
C. Ten years
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (D) None of the above
Q67. Which of the following is the preferred antibiotic for treatment of patients with typhoid fever
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Levofloxacin
D. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer: (B) Ceftriaxone
Q68. Foods that are commonly associated with food poisoning include
A. Fruits and vegetables
B. Raw metals
C. Eggs
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q69. The karyosome of Entamoeba histolytica is
A. Liver
B. Progressive
C. Central
D. Even
Correct Answer: (C) Central
Q70. Which is the most common STI caused by bacteria
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia
D. Genital warts
Correct Answer: (A) Gonorrhea
Q71. Malignant tertian malaria is caused by
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium falciparum
Correct Answer: (D) Plasmodium falciparum
Q72. Food poisoning can be prevented by which of the following safety steps
A. Leaving food in the heat to thaw
B. Storing food at temperature above 50 degrees Fahrenheit
C. Washing hands thoroughly and frequently
D. Rinsing meat before cooking
Correct Answer: (C) Washing hands thoroughly and frequently
Q73. In addition to amoebiasis, metronidazole is used for
A. Roundworm infestation
B. Hookworm infestation
C. Kala – azar
D. Giardiasis
Correct Answer: (D) Giardiasis
Q74. The overall number of cases of STIs is
A. Rising
B. Falling
C. About the same as it has always been
D. None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Rising
Q75. Blackwater fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by
A. P. falciparum
B. P. malariae
C. P. ovale
D. P. vivax
Correct Answer: (A) P. falciparum
Q76. Lepromin test is used for
A. Classifying on the basis of immune response
B. Diagnostic test
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Classifying on the basis of immune response
Q77. Which of the following is not a virus transmitted by mosquitoes
A. Lassa fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Dengue fever
D. Japanese B encephalitis
Correct Answer: (B) Yellow fever
Q78. Which of the following is not a synthetic drug to cure malaria
A. Quinine
B. Paludrin
C. Pamaquine
D. Plasmochin
Correct Answer: (A) Quinine
Q79. Most cases of food poisoning are caused by
A. Viruses and bacteria
B. Parasites
C. Fungi
D. Toxins
Correct Answer: (A) Viruses and bacteria
Q80. In which age group of population, trachoma is most common
A. 10-15 years
B. 1-3 years
C. 2-5 years
D. 65 years
Correct Answer: (C) 2-5 years
Q81. The causative of Filariasis is
A. Schistosome
B. Trichinella
C. Culex
D. Wuchereria
Correct Answer: (D) Wuchereria
Q82. Signs of dehydration are
A. Sunken eyes
B. Excessive thirst
C. Reduced urination
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q83. A blood test done to diagnose typhoid is
A. ELISA test
B. Widal test
C. Western blot test
D. Torch test
Correct Answer: (B) Widal test
Q84. Diagnosis of chikungunya can be done by
A. Stool tests
B. Urine tests
C. Blood tests
D. Saliva tests
Correct Answer: (C) Blood tests
Q85. Which of the following pathogens is not transmitted by vector
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Alpha virus
C. Plasmodium
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
Correct Answer: (A) Salmonella typhi
Q86. Bleeding in dengue occurs due to
A. A decrease in platelet levels
B. Repeated falls
C. Eating spicy foods
D. A decrease in white blood cells
Correct Answer: (A) A decrease in platelet levels
Q87. Filariasis is a result of the infection of
A. Fleas
B. Bed bug
C. Leech
D. Nematode worm
Correct Answer: (D) Nematode worm
Q88. Vectors odamoebiasis are
A. Rodent
B. Files
C. Cockroach
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q89. The typical pattern of fever in typhoid is
A. Intermittent fever
B. Relapsing fever
C. Pel-ebstein fever
D. Continuous fever
Correct Answer: (D) Continuous fever
Q90. Antibiotics most commonly used in the treatment of typhoid are
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Ampicillin
C. Fluroquinolones
D. Trimethoprim – sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer: (C) Fluroquinolones
Q91. Causative agent of trachoma
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Streptococci
D. Staphylococcus aures
Correct Answer: (B) Chlamydia trachomatis
Q92. What are the 3 phases of dengue fever
A. Coalescing, trivial and serious
B. Staging, growing and spreading
C. Febrile, critical and convalescent
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Febrile, critical and convalescent
Q93. What is the average incubation period of M. leprae
A. 5 year
B. 6 year
C. 1 year
D. 3 year
Correct Answer: (D) 3 year
Q94. The most common site for amoebiasis is
A. Cecum
B. Sigmoid colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Hepatic flexure
Correct Answer: (A) Cecum
Q95. The most common symptoms in chikungunya are
A. Fever with cough
B. Fever with severe joint pains
C. Fever with severe stomach ache
D. Fever with severe diarrhea and vomiting
Correct Answer: (B) Fever with severe joint pains
Q96. Which of these measures cannot help prevent chikungunya
A. Avoid mosquito bites
B. Going to public places
C. Using insect repellents
D. Wearing long sleeved garments
Correct Answer: (B) Going to public places
Q97. The sexual cycle of plasmodium is complete in
A. The gut of mosquito
B. RBC
C. Liver tissue
D. The salivary gland of the mosquito
Correct Answer: (A) The gut of mosquito
Q98. Which of the following disease is considered with low infectivity
A. Tetanus
B. Leprosy
C. HIV/AIDS
D. Trachoma
Correct Answer: (D) Trachoma
Q99. This disease is caused by a nematod
A. Amoebiasis
B. Leprosy
C. Filariasis
D. Poliomyelitis
Correct Answer: (C) Filariasis
Q100. Manifestations of trachoma develops in stages 4, conjunctival scar tissue often causes which of the following
A. Lacrimation
B. Formation of tarsal follicles
C. Corneal neovascularization
D. Entropion
Correct Answer: (D) Entropion
Q101. Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in
A. Diamonds medium
B. CLED medium
C. NNN medium
D. Macconkey agar
Correct Answer: (A) Diamonds medium
Q102. Which is the most virulent serotype of dengue fever
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3 and 4
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Type 2
Q103. Trophozoites, schizonts, and gametocytes of all the malarial parasites are seen in the peripheral blood smear except
A. P. falciparum
B. P. malariae
C. P. ovale
D. P. vivax
Correct Answer: (A) P. falciparum
Q104. Dengue is characterized by
A. Fever without rash
B. Fever with rash
C. Rash without fever
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Fever with rash
Q105. Which of the following is a food infection
A. Salmonellosis
B. Botulism
C. Staphylococcal intoxication
D. None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Salmonellosis
Q106. Aside from humans what other animal is susceptible to leprosy
A. Monkey
B. Armadillo
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Armadillo
Q107. What vector is used to transmit encephalitis and yellow fever to humans
A. Ticks
B. Sandflies
C. Mosquitoes
D. Rodents
Correct Answer: (C) Mosquitoes
Q108. Sporozoites of the malarial parasites are found in
A. The saliva of female Anopheles mosquito, which is freshly moulted
B. The saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
C. RBCs of an infected human
D. The spleen of an infected human
Correct Answer: (B) The saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
Q109. Besides chikungunya, the aedes mosquito also spreads
A. Dengue
B. Malaria
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Dengue
Q110. Chikungunya is cause by a
A. Bacterium
B. Virus
C. Parasite
D. Protozoan
Correct Answer: (B) Virus
Q111. Causative agent of dengue fever
A. Togavirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Varicella virus
D. Arbovirus
Correct Answer: (D) Arbovirus
Q112. All are uses of metronidazole except
A. Amoebiasis
B. Giardiasis
C. Trichomonas vaginitis
D. Malaria
Correct Answer: (D) Malaria
Q113. Pentamidine is a first line drug for the following disease
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Pneumocystis carinli pneumonia
C. Actinomycosis
D. Leishmaniasis
Correct Answer: (B) Pneumocystis carinli pneumonia
Q114. Which of the following symptoms are the most common in people who are infected with malaria
A. Muscle aches and low-grade fever
B. Skin rashes and swollen legs and hands
C. Mouth rashes and itchy skin
D. High-grade fever and chills
Correct Answer: (D) High-grade fever and chills
Q115. Laboratory diagnosis of Entamoeba histolytica depends on identification in the _________
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. Saliva
D. Stool
Correct Answer: (D) Stool
Q116. Differentiation between pathogenic and non-pathogenic strains can be done by
A. Phagocytic activity
B. Use of genetic markers
C. Zymodeme analysis
D. All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Q117. Which disease is closely related to leprosy
A. Pneumonia
B. Typhoid
C. Tuberculosis
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Tuberculosis
Q118. In which of the following vector borne disease does transovarian transmission occur
A. Yellow fever
B. Dengue fever
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Both a and b
Correct Answer: (D) Both a and b
Q119. What are the most common symptoms of food poisoning
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Constipation
C. Joint pain
D. Headache
Correct Answer: (A) Nausea and vomiting
Q120. STIs are most common in which age group
A. Teens and young adults up to age 24
B. People ages 30 to 45
C. People 60 and older
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Q121. What Arbovirus does not induce human hemorrhagic fever
A. The Lassa fever virus
B. The Yellow fever virus
C. The Hantavirus
D. The Marburg and Ebola viruses
Correct Answer: (D) The Marburg and Ebola viruses
Q122. Malaria is caused by
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Leishmania
C. Clostridium
D. Plasmodium
Correct Answer: (D) Plasmodium
Q123. Which infective organism is responsible for dengue
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungus
D. Protozoa
Correct Answer: (B) Virus
Q124. Which of the following is a symptoms of dengue
A. Fever
B. Rash
C. Sever muscle and joints pain
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above